General Practice Exam 35 Questions, valid until June 30th, 2015

The Genesee County Radio Club Holds VE Test Sessions on the
3rd Saturday of each month (except for May) at 9:30am
Baker College off Bristol Road in Flint, MI

General Schematic

Answers are at bottom of page...

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Question #1
G1A09
Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 80 meter band?
A. 1855 kHz
B. 2560 kHz
C. 3560 kHz
D. 3650 kHz


Question #2
G1B01
What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?
A. 50 feet
B. 100 feet
C. 200 feet
D. 300 feet


Question #3
G1C09
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted on the 1.25 meter and 70 centimeter bands
A. 56 kilobaud
B. 19.6 kilobaud
C. 1200 baud
D. 300 baud


Question #4
G1D03
On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician Class operator and have a CSCE for General Class privileges?
A. Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted on the FCC database
B. Only on the Technician band segments until your license arrives in the mail
C. On any General or Technician Class band segment
D. On any General or Technician Class band segment except 30 and 60 meters


Question #5
G1E06
Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater?
A. The licensee of the non-coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
B. The licensee of the coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
C. Both repeater licensees share equal responsibility to resolve the interference
D. The frequency coordinator bears primary responsibility to resolve the interference


Question #6
G2A07
Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband (SSB) voice mode?
A. Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
B. Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
C. SSB voice transmissions have higher average power than any other mode
D. SSB is the only mode that is authorized on the 160, 75 and 40 meter amateur bands


Question #7
G2B02
What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?
A. Continue your communication because you were on frequency first
B. Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
C. Change to a different frequency
D. Immediately cease all transmissions


Question #8
G2C04
What does it mean when a CW operator sends "CL" at the end of a transmission?
A. Keep frequency clear
B. Operating full break-in
C. Listening only for a specific station or stations
D. Closing station


Question #9
G2D07
Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60 meter band?
A. If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
B. You must keep a log of the date, time, frequency, power level and stations worked
C. You must keep a log of all third party traffic
D. You must keep a log of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used


Question #10
G2E10
What is a major advantage of MFSK16 compared to other digital modes?
A. It is much higher speed than RTTY
B. It is much narrower bandwidth than most digital modes
C. It has built-in error correction
D. It offers good performance in weak signal environments without error correction


Question #11
G3A03
Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio-wave propagation on the Earth?
A. 28 days
B. 1 to 2 hours
C. 8 minutes
D. 20 to 40 hours


Question #12
G3B04
What is a reliable way to determine if the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF) is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?
A. Listen for signals from an international beacon
B. Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal
C. Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe
D. Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band


Question #13
G3C02
Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?
A. Where the Sun is overhead
B. Where the Sun is on the opposite side of the Earth
C. Where the Sun is rising
D. Where the Sun has just set


Question #14
G4A05
What is a purpose of using Automatic Level Control (ALC) with a RF power amplifier?
A. To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
B. To reduce harmonic radiation
C. To reduce distortion due to excessive drive
D. To increase overall efficiency


Question #15
G4B15
What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?
A. Linearity
B. Carrier and undesired sideband suppression
C. Percentage of frequency modulation
D. Percentage of carrier phase shift


Question #16
G4C04
What is the effect on an audio device or telephone system if there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter?
A. On-and-off humming or clicking
B. A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
C. A chirpy CW signal
D. Severely distorted audio


Question #17
G4D07
How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S- meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?
A. Approximately 1.5 times
B. Approximately 2 times
C. Approximately 4 times
D. Approximately 8 times


Question #18
G4E08
What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?
A. Photovoltaic conversion
B. Photon emission
C. Photosynthesis
D. Photon decomposition


Question #19
G5A10
What unit is used to measure impedance?
A. Volt
B. Ohm
C. Ampere
D. Watt


Question #20
G5B08
What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave that has an RMS voltage of 120 volts?
A. 84.8 volts
B. 169.7 volts
C. 240.0 volts
D. 339.4 volts


Question #21
G5C07
What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having a 600-ohm output impedance to a speaker having a 4-ohm impedance?
A. 12.2 to 1
B. 24.4 to 1
C. 150 to 1
D. 300 to 1


Question #22
G6A03
Which of the following is an advantage of ceramic capacitors as compared to other types of capacitors?
A. Tight tolerance
B. High stability
C. High capacitance for given volume
D. Comparatively low cost


Question #23
G6B06
Which of the following is an advantage of using a Schottky diode in an RF switching circuit as compared to a standard silicon diode?
A. Lower capacitance
B. Lower inductance
C. Longer switching times
D. Higher breakdown voltage


Question #24
G6C14
Which of these connector types is commonly used for audio signals in Amateur Radio stations?
A. PL-259
B. BNC
C. RCA Phono
D. Type N


Question #25
G7A03
What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?
A. One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply
B. Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
C. Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
D. Equal to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply


Question #26
G7B01
Complex digital circuitry can often be replaced by what type of integrated circuit?
A. Microcontroller
B. Charge-coupled device
C. Phase detector
D. Window comparator


Question #27
G7C06
What should be the impedance of a low-pass filter as compared to the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted?
A. Substantially higher
B. About the same
C. Substantially lower
D. Twice the transmission line impedance


Question #28
G8A07
Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest frequency bandwidth?
A. Single sideband
B. Double sideband
C. Phase modulation
D. Frequency modulation


Question #29
G8B08
Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the data mode you are using when transmitting?
A. To aid in tuning your transmitter
B. Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.
C. To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
D. All of these choices are correct


Question #30
G9A08
If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5 to 1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to 1 to 1 SWR, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?
A. 1 to 1
B. 5 to 1
C. Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
D. Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter


Question #31
G9B03
What happens to the feed-point impedance of a ground-plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to downward-sloping?
A. It decreases
B. It increases
C. It stays the same
D. It reaches a maximum at an angle of 45 degrees


Question #32
G9C15
Approximately how long is each side of a quad antenna reflector element?
A. Slightly less than 1/4 wavelength
B. Slightly more than 1/4 wavelength
C. Slightly less than 1/2 wavelength
D. Slightly more than 1/2 wavelength


Question #33
G9D03
At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?
A. As close to one-half wave as possible
B. As close to one wavelength as possible
C. Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength
D. Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength


Question #34
G0A07
What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?
A. A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
B. A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
C. Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
D. High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements


Question #35
G0B07
Which of the following should be observed for safety when climbing on a tower using a safety belt or harness?
A. Never lean back and rely on the belt alone to support your weight
B. Always attach the belt safety hook to the belt D-ring with the hook opening away from the tower
C. Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the belt D-ring
D. Make sure that your belt is grounded at all times


********************Answer Key for your Test*******************

Question #1
G1A09 - (C)
Question #2
G1B01 - (C)
Question #3
G1C09 - (A)
Question #4
G1D03 - (C)
Question #5
G1E06 - (A)
Question #6
G2A07 - (B)
Question #7
G2B02 - (B)
Question #8
G2C04 - (D)
Question #9
G2D07 - (A)
Question #10
G2E10 - (D)
Question #11
G3A03 - (C)
Question #12
G3B04 - (A)
Question #13
G3C02 - (A)
Question #14
G4A05 - (C)
Question #15
G4B15 - (A)
Question #16
G4C04 - (A)
Question #17
G4D07 - (C)
Question #18
G4E08 - (A)
Question #19
G5A10 - (B)
Question #20
G5B08 - (D)
Question #21
G5C07 - (A)
Question #22
G6A03 - (D)
Question #23
G6B06 - (A)
Question #24
G6C14 - (C)
Question #25
G7A03 - (D)
Question #26
G7B01 - (A)
Question #27
G7C06 - (B)
Question #28
G8A07 - (A)
Question #29
G8B08 - (B)
Question #30
G9A08 - (B)
Question #31
G9B03 - (B)
Question #32
G9C15 - (B)
Question #33
G9D03 - (D)
Question #34
G0A07 - (A)
Question #35
G0B07 - (B)