General Practice Exam 35 Questions, valid until June 30th, 2015

The Genesee County Radio Club Holds VE Test Sessions on the
3rd Saturday of each month (except for May) at 9:30am
Baker College off Bristol Road in Flint, MI

General Schematic

Answers are at bottom of page...

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Question #1
G1A04
Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication on only specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?
A. 11 meters
B. 12 meters
C. 30 meters
D. 60 meters


Question #2
G1B07
What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Service?
A. Only "Q" codes are permitted
B. They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
C. They are not permitted
D. Only "10 codes" are permitted


Question #3
G1C02
What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12 meter band?
A. 1500 PEP output, except for 200 watts PEP output in the Novice portion
B. 200 watts PEP output
C. 1500 watts PEP output
D. An effective radiated power equivalent to 50 watts from a half-wave dipole


Question #4
G1D01
Which of the following is a proper way to identify when transmitting using phone on General Class frequencies if you have a CSCE for the required elements but your upgrade from Technician has not appeared in the FCC database?
A. Give your call sign followed by the words "General Class"
B. No special identification is needed
C. Give your call sign followed by "slant AG"
D. Give your call sign followed the abbreviation “CSCE”


Question #5
G1E02
When may a 10 meter repeater retransmit the 2 meter signal from a station having a Technician Class control operator?
A. Under no circumstances
B. Only if the station on 10 meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
C. Only during an FCC declared general state of communications emergency
D. Only if the 10 meter repeater control operator holds at least a General Class license


Question #6
G2A04
Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17 and 12 meter bands?
A. Upper sideband
B. Lower sideband
C. Vestigial sideband
D. Double sideband


Question #7
G2B08
What is the “DX window” in a voluntary band plan?
A. A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States
B. An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions on that band segment
C. An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band
D. A portion of the band that has been voluntarily set aside for digital contacts only


Question #8
G2C03
What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?
A. Listening for novice stations
B. Operating full break-in
C. Listening only for a specific station or stations
D. Closing station now


Question #9
G2D08
Why do many amateurs keep a log even though the FCC doesn't require it?
A. The ITU requires a log of all international contacts
B. The ITU requires a log of all international third party traffic
C. The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
D. To help with a reply if the FCC requests information


Question #10
G2E03
What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?
A. Directory
B. Preamble
C. Header
D. Footer


Question #11
G3A15
How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio-wave propagation on the Earth?
A. 28 days
B. 14 days
C. 4 to 8 minutes
D. 20 to 40 hours


Question #12
G3B06
What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the Lowest Usable Frequency (LUF)?
A. They are bent back to the Earth
B. They pass through the ionosphere
C. They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere
D. They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth


Question #13
G3C06
What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?
A. They have high intelligibility
B. They have a wavering sound
C. They have very large swings in signal strength
D. All of these choices are correct


Question #14
G4A06
What type of device is often used to enable matching the transmitter output to an impedance other than 50 ohms?
A. Balanced modulator
B. SWR Bridge
C. Antenna coupler
D. Q Multiplier


Question #15
G4B05
Why is high input impedance desirable for a voltmeter?
A. It improves the frequency response
B. It decreases battery consumption in the meter
C. It improves the resolution of the readings
D. It decreases the loading on circuits being measured


Question #16
G4C13
Which of the following can perform automatic notching of interfering carriers?
A. Band-pass tuning
B. A Digital Signal Processor (DSP) filter
C. Balanced mixing
D. A noise limiter


Question #17
G4D09
What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?
A. 14.347 to 14.647 MHz
B. 14.347 to 14.350 MHz
C. 14.344 to 14.347 MHz
D. 14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz


Question #18
G4E01
What is a "capacitance hat", when referring to a mobile antenna?
A. A device to increase the power handling capacity of a mobile whip antenna
B. A device that allows automatic band-changing for a mobile antenna
C. A device to electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
D. A device that allows remote tuning of a mobile antenna


Question #19
G5A08
Why is impedance matching important?
A. So the source can deliver maximum power to the load
B. So the load will draw minimum power from the source
C. To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit
D. To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal


Question #20
G5B05
How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through 1.25 kilohms?
A. Approximately 61 milliwatts
B. Approximately 61 watts
C. Approximately 11 milliwatts
D. Approximately 11 watts


Question #21
G5C10
What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?
A. .30 Henrys
B. 3.3 Henrys
C. 3.3 millihenrys
D. 30 millihenrys


Question #22
G6A13
What is an effect of inter-turn capacitance in an inductor?
A. The magnetic field may become inverted
B. The inductor may become self resonant at some frequencies
C. The permeability will increase
D. The voltage rating may be exceeded


Question #23
G6B06
Which of the following is an advantage of using a Schottky diode in an RF switching circuit as compared to a standard silicon diode?
A. Lower capacitance
B. Lower inductance
C. Longer switching times
D. Higher breakdown voltage


Question #24
G6C07
What is one disadvantage of an incandescent indicator compared to an LED?
A. Low power consumption
B. High speed
C. Long life
D. High power consumption


Question #25
G7A11
Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?
A. Symbol 1
B. Symbol 2
C. Symbol 7
D. Symbol 11


Question #26
G7B06
What is a shift register?
A. A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
B. An array of operational amplifiers used for tri state arithmetic operations
C. A digital mixer
D. An analog mixer


Question #27
G7C07
What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?
A. RF amplifier, detector, audio amplifier
B. RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator
C. HF oscillator, mixer, detector
D. HF oscillator, pre-scaler, audio amplifier


Question #28
G8A08
Which of the following is an effect of over-modulation?
A. Insufficient audio
B. Insufficient bandwidth
C. Frequency drift
D. Excessive bandwidth


Question #29
G8B12
What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?
A. Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
B. Higher symbol rates require higher bandwidth
C. Lower symbol rates require higher bandwidth
D. Bandwidth is constant for data mode signals


Question #30
G9A01
Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?
A. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
B. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
C. The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
D. The frequency of the signal and the length of the line


Question #31
G9B08
How does the feed-point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed-point location is moved from the center toward the ends?
A. It steadily increases
B. It steadily decreases
C. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
D. It is unaffected by the location of the feed point


Question #32
G9C07
What does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?
A. The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
B. The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
C. The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction
D. The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain


Question #33
G9D08
Why is a Beverage antenna not used for transmitting?
A. Its impedance is too low for effective matching
B. It has high losses compared to other types of antennas
C. It has poor directivity
D. All of these choices are correct


Question #34
G0A02
Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?
A. Its duty cycle
B. Its frequency
C. Its power density
D. All of these choices are correct


Question #35
G0B14
Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?
A. Acceptable bandwidth limits
B. Acceptable modulation limits
C. Electrical safety inside the ham shack
D. RF exposure limits of the human body


********************Answer Key for your Test*******************

Question #1
G1A04 - (D)
Question #2
G1B07 - (B)
Question #3
G1C02 - (C)
Question #4
G1D01 - (C)
Question #5
G1E02 - (D)
Question #6
G2A04 - (A)
Question #7
G2B08 - (A)
Question #8
G2C03 - (C)
Question #9
G2D08 - (D)
Question #10
G2E03 - (C)
Question #11
G3A15 - (D)
Question #12
G3B06 - (C)
Question #13
G3C06 - (B)
Question #14
G4A06 - (C)
Question #15
G4B05 - (D)
Question #16
G4C13 - (B)
Question #17
G4D09 - (B)
Question #18
G4E01 - (C)
Question #19
G5A08 - (A)
Question #20
G5B05 - (A)
Question #21
G5C10 - (C)
Question #22
G6A13 - (B)
Question #23
G6B06 - (A)
Question #24
G6C07 - (D)
Question #25
G7A11 - (B)
Question #26
G7B06 - (A)
Question #27
G7C07 - (C)
Question #28
G8A08 - (D)
Question #29
G8B12 - (B)
Question #30
G9A01 - (A)
Question #31
G9B08 - (A)
Question #32
G9C07 - (C)
Question #33
G9D08 - (B)
Question #34
G0A02 - (D)
Question #35
G0B14 - (C)