General Practice Exam 35 Questions, valid until June 30th, 2015

The Genesee County Radio Club Holds VE Test Sessions on the
3rd Saturday of each month (except for May) at 9:30am
Baker College off Bristol Road in Flint, MI

General Schematic

Answers are at bottom of page...

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Question #1
Which, if any, amateur band is shared with the Citizens Radio Service?
A. 10 meters
B. 12 meters
C. 15 meters
D. None

Question #2
When may an amateur station transmit communications in which the licensee or control operator has a pecuniary (monetary) interest?
A. When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of apparatus normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not done on a regular basis
B. Only when there is no other means of communications readily available
C. When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of any item with a monetary value less than $200 and such activity is not done on a regular basis
D. Never

Question #3
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 2 meter band?
A. 56 kilobaud
B. 19.6 kilobaud
C. 1200 baud
D. 300 baud

Question #4
Which of the following is a proper way to identify when transmitting using phone on General Class frequencies if you have a CSCE for the required elements but your upgrade from Technician has not appeared in the FCC database?
A. Give your call sign followed by the words "General Class"
B. No special identification is needed
C. Give your call sign followed by "slant AG"
D. Give your call sign followed the abbreviation “CSCE”

Question #5
What portion of the 10 meter band is available for repeater use?
A. The entire band
B. The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
C. The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
D. The portion above 29.5 MHz

Question #6
Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160, 75 and 40 meter bands?
A. Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
B. Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
C. Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
D. Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands

Question #7
What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference when selecting a frequency to call CQ on CW or phone?
A. Send "QRL?" on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
B. Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
C. Send the letter "V" in Morse code several times and listen for a response
D. Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use”, then send your call and listen for a response

Question #8
What does the Q signal "QRQ" mean?
A. Slow down
B. Send faster
C. Zero beat my signal
D. Quitting operation

Question #9
How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?
A. Toward the rising Sun
B. Along the gray line
C. 180 degrees from its short-path heading
D. Toward the north

Question #10
Which of the following describes Baudot code?
A. A 7-bit code with start, stop and parity bits
B. A code using error detection and correction
C. A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
D. A code using SELCAL and LISTEN

Question #11
What does the K-index indicate?
A. The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
B. The short term stability of the Earth’s magnetic field
C. The stability of the Sun's magnetic field
D. The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado

Question #12
How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?
A. Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
B. Signal strength increased by 3 dB
C. The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
D. A well-defined echo might be heard

Question #13
Which of the following might be an indication that signals heard on the HF bands are being received via scatter propagation?
A. The communication is during a sunspot maximum
B. The communication is during a sudden ionospheric disturbance
C. The signal is heard on a frequency below the Maximum Usable Frequency
D. The signal is heard on a frequency above the Maximum Usable Frequency

Question #14
What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?
A. Automatic transmit/receive switching
B. Automatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for CW operation
C. VOX operation
D. Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation

Question #15
What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer?
A. SWR readings may be incorrect if the antenna is too close to the Earth
B. Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements
C. The analyzer can be damaged if measurements outside the ham bands are attempted
D. Connecting the analyzer to an antenna can cause it to absorb harmonics

Question #16
What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single-sideband phone transmitter?
A. A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
B. On-and-off humming or clicking
C. Distorted speech
D. Clearly audible speech

Question #17
What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?
A. Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions
B. Increase transmitter bass response for more natural sounding SSB signals
C. Prevent distortion of voice signals
D. Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out of band operation

Question #18
Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?
A. To the battery using heavy gauge wire
B. To the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire
C. To the battery using resistor wire
D. To the alternator or generator using resistor wire

Question #19
What is impedance?
A. The electric charge stored by a capacitor
B. The inverse of resistance
C. The opposition to the flow of current in an AC circuit
D. The force of repulsion between two similar electric fields

Question #20
What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?
A. 1.4 watts
B. 100 watts
C. 353.5 watts
D. 400 watts

Question #21
What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series?
A. .30 microfarads
B. .33 microfarads
C. 33.3 microfarads
D. 300 microfarads

Question #22
Which of the following is an advantage of ceramic capacitors as compared to other types of capacitors?
A. Tight tolerance
B. High stability
C. High capacitance for given volume
D. Comparatively low cost

Question #23
What is the peak-inverse-voltage rating of a rectifier?
A. The maximum voltage the rectifier will handle in the conducting direction
B. 1.4 times the AC frequency
C. The maximum voltage the rectifier will handle in the non-conducting direction
D. 2.8 times the AC frequency

Question #24
Which of these connector types is commonly used for RF service at frequencies up to 150 MHz?
A. Octal
B. RJ-11
C. PL-259
D. DB-25

Question #25
Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?
A. Symbol 1
B. Symbol 2
C. Symbol 7
D. Symbol 11

Question #26
Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?
A. Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent with an "on" or "off" state
B. The binary number system is most accurate
C. Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry
D. All of these choices are correct

Question #27
Which circuit is used to combine signals from the carrier oscillator and speech amplifier and send the result to the filter in a typical single-sideband phone transmitter?
A. Discriminator
B. Detector
C. IF amplifier
D. Balanced modulator

Question #28
What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single-sideband phone transmission?
A. Audio fidelity is improved
B. Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion
C. The available transmitter power can be used more effectively
D. Simpler receiving equipment can be used

Question #29
Why isn't frequency modulated (FM) phone used below 29.5 MHz?
A. The transmitter efficiency for this mode is low
B. Harmonics could not be attenuated to practical levels
C. The wide bandwidth is prohibited by FCC rules
D. The frequency stability would not be adequate

Question #30
What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?
A. 25 and 30 ohms
B. 50 and 75 ohms
C. 80 and 100 ohms
D. 500 and 750 ohms

Question #31
How does the feed-point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed-point location is moved from the center toward the ends?
A. It steadily increases
B. It steadily decreases
C. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
D. It is unaffected by the location of the feed point

Question #32
How does the gain of two 3-element horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single 3-element Yagi?
A. Approximately 1.5 dB higher
B. Approximately 3 dB higher
C. Approximately 6 dB higher
D. Approximately 9 dB higher

Question #33
What does the term "NVIS" mean as related to antennas?
A. Nearly Vertical Inductance System
B. Non-Visible Installation Specification
C. Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing
D. Near Vertical Incidence Sky wave

Question #34
What is one thing that can be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might receive more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?
A. Change from horizontal polarization to vertical polarization
B. Change from horizontal polarization to circular polarization
C. Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
D. Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction

Question #35
What should be done by any person preparing to climb a tower that supports electrically powered devices?
A. Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
B. Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
C. Unground the base of the tower
D. All of these choices are correct

********************Answer Key for your Test*******************

Question #1
G1A13 - (D)
Question #2
G1B09 - (A)
Question #3
G1C11 - (B)
Question #4
G1D01 - (C)
Question #5
G1E10 - (D)
Question #6
G2A09 - (D)
Question #7
G2B06 - (A)
Question #8
G2C10 - (B)
Question #9
G2D06 - (C)
Question #10
G2E05 - (C)
Question #11
G3A12 - (B)
Question #12
G3B01 - (D)
Question #13
G3C10 - (D)
Question #14
G4A10 - (B)
Question #15
G4B12 - (B)
Question #16
G4C03 - (C)
Question #17
G4D01 - (A)
Question #18
G4E03 - (A)
Question #19
G5A01 - (C)
Question #20
G5B06 - (B)
Question #21
G5C09 - (C)
Question #22
G6A03 - (D)
Question #23
G6B01 - (C)
Question #24
G6C13 - (C)
Question #25
G7A11 - (B)
Question #26
G7B02 - (A)
Question #27
G7C02 - (D)
Question #28
G8A06 - (C)
Question #29
G8B05 - (C)
Question #30
G9A02 - (B)
Question #31
G9B08 - (A)
Question #32
G9C20 - (B)
Question #33
G9D01 - (D)
Question #34
G0A10 - (D)
Question #35
G0B08 - (B)